Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders My Nursing Test Banks

Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which condition is associated with hydantoin therapy?

a.

Postictal state

b.

Atonia

c.

Seizure threshold reduction

d.

Gingival hyperplasia

ANS: D

Encouraging good oral hygiene practices is indicated when a patient is on hydantoin therapy because its use contributes to gingival hyperplasia. Postictal state is a characteristic of generalized tonic clonic seizures. Atonia is not associated with hydantoin therapy. Hydantoin raises the seizure threshold.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 295 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

2. The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a patient with a history of diabetes who has just been diagnosed with seizure disorder. The patient has been prescribed hydantoin therapy. What will the patient most likely experience?

a.

Hunger

b.

Hyperglycemia

c.

Diarrhea

d.

Pupil dilation

ANS: B

Hydantoins may elevate blood sugar levels. Hunger, diarrhea, and pupil dilation are adverse effects of hydantoin therapy. Constipation and nystagmus are potential adverse effects.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 294 OBJ: 5

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

3. What is a guideline for the nurse when administering phenytoin (Dilantin) intravenously?

a.

Deliver rapidly.

b.

Monitor for signs of tachycardia.

c.

Assess for hypertensive crisis.

d.

Administer without mixing with other medications.

ANS: D

Phenytoin should not be mixed in the same syringe with other medications or added to other intravenous (IV) solutions because a precipitate will form. Phenytoin should be administered slowly at a rate of 25 to 50 mg/min. Patients should be monitored with an ECG closely for bradycardia. Patients should be monitored for hypotension.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 292 OBJ: 6

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

4. For which condition may carbamazepine (Tegretol) be used?

a.

Tardive dyskinesia

b.

Psychotic episodes

c.

Trigeminal neuralgia pain

d.

Sedation

ANS: C

Carbamazepine has been used successfully to treat pain associated with trigeminal neuralgia and for bipolar disorders when lithium therapy has not been optimal. Carbamazepine does not have antidepressant, antipsychotic, or sedative effects.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 296 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

5. What is the drug of choice when treating a generalized tonic clonic seizure?

a.

Diazepam (Valium)

b.

Haloperidol (Haldol)

c.

Valproic acid (Depakene)

d.

Risperidone (Risperdal)

ANS: C

Anticonvulsant therapy should start with the use of a single agent selected from a group of first line agents based on the type of seizure. Valproic acid is indicated for generalized tonic clonic seizures. Diazepam is not the drug of choice for treatment of tonic clonic seizures. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication. Risperidone is an antipsychotic agent.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 306 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Planning

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

6. Which response by the nurse is accurate when a patient who has been on lamotrigine (Lamictal) for seizure control reports a skin rash and urticaria?

a.

Reassure the patient that this is a common adverse effect of the medication and not to worry.

b.

Instruct the patient to discontinue use of the drug immediately.

c.

Instruct the patient to decrease the dosage of the medication until the rash disappears.

d.

Advise the patient that this adverse effect usually resolves but should be reported to the health care provider.

ANS: D

The nurse is not authorized to recommend dosage changes to the patient. The nurse should not trivialize the patients concern about the adverse effect; it is common only in 10% of patients who take lamotrigine and can lead to more serious adverse effects. The nurse should not recommend discontinuing the medication without orders from the health care provider. This is not a common adverse effect and should be monitored. Approximately 10% of patients receiving lamotrigine develop a skin rash in the first 4 to 6 months of therapy. The health care provider should be notified promptly because the rash could be an indicator of a more serious condition.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 300 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment

7. Which medication is used to control seizures or prevent migraine headaches?

a.

Topiramate (Topamax)

b.

Zonisamide (Zonegran)

c.

Valproic acid (Depakene)

d.

Tiagabine (Gabitril)

ANS: A

Topiramate has been approved for adults in the prevention (but not treatment) of migraine headaches. Zonisamide, valproic acid, and tiagabine do not affect migraine headaches.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 305 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

8. Which condition would indicate to the nurse that a patient has phenytoin (Dilantin) toxicity?

a.

Oculogyric crisis

b.

Nystagmus

c.

Strabismus

d.

Amblyopia

ANS: B

Nystagmus (involuntary rhythmic, uncontrollable movements of one or both eyes) may be a sign of phenytoin toxicity. Oculogyric crisis is an adverse effect of some antipsychotic medications. Strabismus is a visual disorder in which the eyes are misaligned and point in different directions. Amblyopia is a loss of visual acuity in the nondominant eye caused by lack of use of the eye in early childhood.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 295 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

9. What information would be most important for the nurse to provide to a patient when teaching about the adverse effects of succinimide therapy?

a.

Nausea, vomiting, and indigestion are common during the initiation of therapy.

b.

Avoid taking the medication with food or milk to minimize adverse effects.

c.

Sedation, drowsiness, and dizziness tend to worsen with continued therapy.

d.

Reducing the dosage of medication will relieve symptoms of nausea.

ANS: A

Nausea, vomiting, and indigestion are common during initiation of therapy. Taking the medicine with food or milk reduces the nausea and indigestion. Sedation, drowsiness, and dizziness tend to disappear with continued therapy. Gradual increases in dosage tend to decrease nausea and vomiting.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 296 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

10. What dose is within the acceptable range for administering IV phenytoin (Dilantin) to a patient with a seizure disorder?

a.

5 mg/min

b.

30 mg/min

c.

60 mg/min

d.

100 mg/min

ANS: B

Phenytoin is administered slowly at a rate of 25 to 50 mg/min. A rate of 5 mg/min is too slow. A rate of 60 mg/min or 100 mg/min is too fast.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 295 OBJ: 6

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

11. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for management of a seizure disorder. Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a.

I need to avoid or limit caffeine intake.

b.

I will check with the pharmacist before taking over the counter medication.

c.

If I develop enlarged gums, I will stop taking the medication.

d.

It is important for me to take my medicine at the same time daily.

ANS: C

Medications are not discontinued unless approved by the health care provider. Gingival hyperplasia is a common adverse effect that can be reduced by oral hygiene. Limiting caffeine intake, checking with the pharmacist about any additional over the counter medications, and taking the medication at the same time every day are appropriate actions by the patient.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 295 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

12. Which premedication assessment by the nurse is most important prior to the initiation of carbamazepine (Tegretol) therapy?

a.

Determine patients ancestry.

b.

Monitor blood pressure (BP) lying, sitting, and standing.

c.

Auscultate lung sounds.

d.

Obtain smoking history.

ANS: A

The nurse needs to review the patients history to exclude Asian ancestry, including South Asian Indians. If the patient does have this ancestry, bring it to the prescribers attention so that genetic testing may be completed. BP monitoring is important and hypotension is an adverse effect, but it is not as significant to monitor prior to the initiation of therapy. Lung sound assessment and smoking history assessment are important assessments, but not prior to the initiation of carbamazepine therapy.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 297 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

13. The nurse is providing education to a patient recently prescribed pregabalin (Lyrica). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further instruction?

a.

I may feel tired at first, but this should improve with continued use.

b.

Once my pain improves, I will stop taking this medication.

c.

Taking sleeping aids will increase the sedative effect of this medication.

d.

This drug may affect my mental alertness, so I need to be careful around machinery.

ANS: B

When discontinuing therapy, taper over at least 1 week to minimize the potential for withdrawal symptoms. Drowsiness tends to disappear with continued use of the medication. Sleeping aids enhance the sedative effects of pregabalin. Pregabalin causes sedation, so people who work around machinery, drive a car, or perform other duties in which they must remain mentally alert should be particularly cautious.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 303 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

14. The pediatric nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with refractory seizures. The physician orders a ketogenic diet. When the child receives his food tray, the nurse should remove any food containing high levels of:

a.

fat.

b.

salt.

c.

carbohydrates.

d.

vitamin K.

ANS: C

The ketogenic diet is used in children and includes restriction of carbohydrate and protein intake. Fat is the primary fuel that produces acidosis and ketosis in the ketogenic diet. Salt and vitamin K are not restricted in the ketogenic diet.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 289 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

15. What is included in the nursing management of the patient with generalized tonic clonic seizure activity? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Restraining the patients arms to avoid further injury

b.

Placing padding around or under the patients head

c.

Attempting to insert a tongue depressor into the patients mouth

d.

Positioning the patient on the side once the relaxation stage is entered to allow oral secretions to drain

e.

Requesting additional assistance and/or necessary equipment in case the patient does not begin breathing spontaneously when the seizure is over

ANS: B, D, E

Managing a patient during a seizure includes protecting the patient from further injury, (placing padding around or under the head to help prevent head injury), positioning the patient in the recovery position to facilitate respiratory effort, clearing the airway, and initiating ventilations should the patient lack spontaneous respirations after seizure. Restraining a patient who is having a seizure can cause, rather than prevent, injury. Inserting anything into the mouth of someone who is having a seizure can cause injury.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 288 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment

16. The health care provider orders diazepam (Valium) 10 mg IV stat for a patient who was admitted with status epilepticus. What important nursing interventions(s) associated with administration of this medication IV should the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Apply a cardiac monitor to the patient to assess for continuous heart rate, if not already done.

b.

Administer the prescribed dosage over 1 minute.

c.

Mix diazepam in a primary IV solution to avoid overdosing.

d.

Continuously assess the patients airway.

e.

Obtain the correct dose (10 mg) and administer over slow IV push.

ANS: A, D, E

It is important to monitor the patient for bradycardia during administration of diazepam.

During a seizure of any type, it is important to assess for airway patency continuously. Diazepam should be administered slowly by the IV route at a rate of no more than 5 mg/min. For status epilepticus, 5 to 10 mg is typical, preferably by slow IV. The dose may be repeated every 5 to 10 minutes, up to a total dosage of 30 mg. If necessary, repeat therapy in 2 to 4 hours; other drugs are preferable for long term control. Diazepam is incompatible with most other IV medications and should not be combined.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 292 OBJ: 6

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

17. Patients taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of seizures must be aware of the risk for which adverse effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Blood dyscrasias

b.

Hyperglycemia

c.

Urinary retention

d.

Gingival hyperplasia

e.

Insomnia

f.

Sedation

ANS: A, B, D, F

Phenytoin may cause blood dyscrasias, gingival hyperplasia, and sedation and may elevate blood glucose levels, especially if higher doses are used. Urinary retention and insomnia are not adverse effects of phenytoin.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 295 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

18. The nurse is preparing to administer zonisamide (Zonegran) to a newly admitted patient with the diagnosis of adult partial seizures. The nurse should hold this medication if the patient has which sign(s) or symptom(s)? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Skin rash

b.

Urinary frequency

c.

Drowsiness

d.

Allergy to Bactrim

e.

Pruritus

ANS: A, D, E

Zonisamide should not be administered without specific approval if the patient has an allergy to Bactrim or a dermatologic reaction such as a skin rash and/or pruritus. Urinary frequency is not associated with zonisamide. Drowsiness is a common adverse effect of zonisamide.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 308 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

19. A patient on anticonvulsant therapy confides to the nurse at an outpatient clinic that she suspects she may be pregnant. The nurse should encourage the patient to take which action(s)? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Consult an obstetrician.

b.

Discontinue medications.

c.

Carry an identification card.

d.

Provide a list of seizure medications.

e.

Consider oral contraception.

ANS: A, C, D

Pregnancy considerations include encouraging the patient to consult with an obstetrician, provide a list of seizure medications, and carry an identification card. Medications should not be discontinued unless told to do so by the health care provider. If pregnancy is suspected, oral contraceptives should not be encouraged.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 291 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment; Physiological Integrity

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