Chapter 06: Childhood Communicable and Infectious Diseases My Nursing Test Banks

Chapter 06: Childhood Communicable and Infectious Diseases

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Pertussis vaccination should begin at which age?

a.

Birth

b.

2 months

c.

6 months

d.

12 months

ANS: B

The acellular pertussis vaccine is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning at age 6 weeks. Infants are at greater risk for complications of pertussis. The vaccine is not given after age 7 years, when the risks of the vaccine become greater than those of pertussis. The first dose is usually given at the 2-month well-child visit. Infants are highly susceptible to pertussis, which can be a life-threatening illness in this age group.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 209

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

2. A mother tells the nurse that she does not want her infant immunized because of the discomfort associated with injections. What should the nurse explain?

a.

This cannot be prevented.

b.

Infants do not feel pain as adults do.

c.

This is not a good reason for refusing immunizations.

d.

A topical anesthetic can be applied before injections are given.

ANS: D

To minimize the discomfort associated with intramuscular injections, a topical anesthetic agent can be used on the injection site. These include EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetic) and vapor coolant sprays. Pain associated with many procedures can be prevented or minimized by using the principles of atraumatic care. Infants have neural pathways that will indicate pain. Numerous research studies have indicated that infants perceive and react to pain in the same manner as do children and adults. The mother should be allowed to discuss her concerns and the alternatives available. This is part of the informed consent process.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 207

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

3. A 4-month-old infant comes to the clinic for a well-infant checkup. Immunizations she should receive are DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine). She is recovering from a cold but is otherwise healthy and afebrile. Her older sister has cancer and is receiving chemotherapy. Nursing considerations should include which?

a.

DTaP and IPV can be safely given.

b.

DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because she has a cold.

c.

IPV is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.

d.

DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.

ANS: A

These immunizations can be given safely. Serious illness is a contraindication. A mild illness with or without fever is not a contraindication. These are not live vaccines, so they do not pose a risk to her sister.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 202

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

4. Which serious reaction should the nurse be alert for when administering vaccines?

a.

Fever

b.

Skin irritation

c.

Allergic reaction

d.

Pain at injection site

ANS: C

Each vaccine administration carries the risk of an allergic reaction. The nurse must be prepared to intervene if the child demonstrates signs of a severe reaction. Mild febrile reactions do occur after administration. The nurse includes management of fever in the parent teaching. Local skin irritation may occur at the injection site after administration. Parents are informed that this is expected. The injection can be painful. The nurse can minimize the discomfort with topical analgesics and nonpharmacologic measures.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 209 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

5. Which muscle is contraindicated for the administration of immunizations in infants and young children?

a.

Deltoid

b.

Dorsogluteal

c.

Ventrogluteal

d.

Anterolateral thigh

ANS: B

The dorsogluteal site is avoided in children because of the location of nerves and veins. The deltoid is recommended for 12 months and older. The ventrogluteal and anterolateral thigh sites can safely be used for the administration of vaccines to infants.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 196

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

6. Which is described as an elevated, circumscribed skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluid?

a.

Cyst

b.

Papule

c.

Pustule

d.

Vesicle

ANS: D

A vesicle is elevated, circumscribed, superficial, smaller than 1 cm in diameter, and filled with serous fluid. A cyst is elevated, circumscribed, palpable, encapsulated, and filled with liquid or semisolid material. A papule is elevated; palpable; firm; circumscribed; smaller than 1 cm in diameter; and brown, red, pink, tan, or bluish red. A pustule is elevated, superficial, and similar to a vesicle but filled with purulent fluid.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 204

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

7. Which vitamin supplementation has been found to reduce both morbidity and mortality in measles?

a.

A

b.

B1

c.

C

d.

Zinc

ANS: A

Evidence suggests that vitamin A supplementation reduces both morbidity and mortality in measles.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 203

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

8. What does impetigo ordinarily results in?

a.

No scarring

b.

Pigmented spots

c.

Atrophic white scars

d.

Slightly depressed scars

ANS: A

Impetigo tends to heal without scarring unless a secondary infection occurs.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 227

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

9. What often causes cellulitis?

a.

Herpes zoster

b.

Candida albicans

c.

Human papillomavirus

d.

Streptococci or staphylococci

ANS: D

Streptococci, staphylococci, and Haemophilus influenzae are the organisms usually responsible for cellulitis. Herpes zoster is the virus associated with varicella and shingles. C. albicans is associated with candidiasis, or thrush. Human papillomavirus is associated with various types of human warts.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 227

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

10. Lymphangitis (streaking) is frequently seen in what?

a.

Cellulitis

b.

Folliculitis

c.

Impetigo contagiosa

d.

Staphylococcal scalded skin

ANS: A

Lymphangitis is frequently seen in cellulitis. If it is present, hospitalization is usually required for parenteral antibiotics. Lymphangitis is not associated with folliculitis, impetigo, or staphylococcal scalded skin.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 227

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

11. What is most important in the management of cellulitis?

a.

Burow solution compresses

b.

Oral or parenteral antibiotics

c.

Topical application of an antibiotic

d.

Incision and drainage of severe lesions

ANS: B

Oral or parenteral antibiotics are indicated depending on the extent of the cellulitis. Warm water compresses may be indicated for limited cellulitis. The antibiotic needs to be administered systemically. Incision and drainage of severe lesions presents a risk of spreading infection or making the lesion worse.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 227

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

12. What causes warts?

a.

A virus

b.

A fungus

c.

A parasite

d.

Bacteria

ANS: A

Human warts are caused by the human papillomavirus. Infection with fungus, parasites, or bacteria does not result in warts.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 228

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

13. What is the primary treatment for warts?

a.

Vaccination

b.

Local destruction

c.

Corticosteroids

d.

Specific antibiotic therapy

ANS: B

Local destructive therapy is individualized according to location, type, and number; surgical removal, electrocautery, curettage, cryotherapy, caustic solutions, x-ray treatment, and laser therapies are used. Vaccination is prophylaxis for warts, not a treatment. Corticosteroids and specific antibiotic therapy are not effective in the treatment of warts.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 229

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

14. Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for which?

a.

Sympathetic nerve fibers

b.

Parasympathetic nerve fibers

c.

Lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord

d.

Posterior root ganglia and posterior horn of the spinal cord

ANS: D

The herpes zoster virus has an affinity for posterior root ganglia, the posterior horn of the spinal cord, and the skin. The zoster virus does not involve the nerve fibers listed.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 229

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

15. Treatment for herpes simplex virus (type 1 or 2) includes which?

a.

Corticosteroids

b.

Oral griseofulvin

c.

Oral antiviral agent

d.

Topical or systemic antibiotic

ANS: C

Oral antiviral agents are effective for viral infections such as herpes simplex. Corticosteroids, antibiotics, and griseofulvin (an antifungal agent) are not effective for viral infections.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 229

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

16. What should the nurse explain about ringworm?

a.

It is not contagious.

b.

It is a sign of uncleanliness.

c.

It is expected to resolve spontaneously.

d.

It is spread by both direct and indirect contact.

ANS: D

Ringworm is spread by both direct and indirect contact. Infected children should wear protective caps at night to avoid transfer of ringworm to bedding. Ringworm is infectious. Because ringworm is easily transmitted, it is not a sign of uncleanliness. It can be transmitted by seats with head rests, gym mats, and animal-to-human transmission. The drug griseofulvin is indicated for a prolonged course, possibly several months.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 228

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

17. When giving instructions to a parent whose child has scabies, what should the nurse include?

a.

Treat all family members if symptoms develop.

b.

Be prepared for symptoms to last 2 to 3 weeks.

c.

Carefully treat only areas where there is a rash.

d.

Notify practitioner so an antibiotic can be prescribed.

ANS: B

The mite responsible for the scabies will most likely be killed with the administration of medications. It will take 2 to 3 weeks for the stratum corneum to heal. That is when the symptoms will abate. Initiation of therapy does not wait for clinical symptom development. All individuals in close contact with the affected child need to be treated. Permethrin, a scabicide, is the preferred treatment and is applied to all skin surfaces.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 233

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

18. Which is usually the only symptom of pediculosis capitis (head lice)?

a.

Itching

b.

Vesicles

c.

Scalp rash

d.

Localized inflammatory response

ANS: A

Itching is generally the only manifestation of pediculosis capitis (head lice). Diagnosis is made by observation of the white eggs (nits) on the hair shaft. Vesicles, scalp rash, and localized inflammatory response are not symptoms of head lice.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 234

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

19. The school reviewed the pediculosis capitis (head lice) policy and removed the no nit requirement. The nurse explains that now, when a child is found to have nits, the parents must do which before the child can return to school?

a.

No treatment is necessary with the policy change.

b.

Shampoo and then trim the childs hair to prevent reinfestation.

c.

The child can remain in school with treatment done at home.

d.

Treat the child with a shampoo to treat lice and comb with a fine-tooth comb every day until nits are eliminated.

ANS: C

Many children have missed significant amounts of school time with no nit policies. The child should be appropriately treated with a pediculicide and a fine-tooth comb. The environment needs to be treated to prevent reinfestation. The treatment with the pediculicide will kill the lice and leave nit casings. Cutting the childs hair is not recommended; lice infest short hair as well as long. With a no nit policy, treating the child with a shampoo to treat lice and combing the hair with a fine-tooth comb every day until nits are eliminated is the correct treatment. The policy change recognizes that most nits do not become lice.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: pp. 235-236

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

20. The nurse should know what about Lyme disease?

a.

Very difficult to prevent

b.

Easily treated with oral antibiotics in stages 1, 2, and 3

c.

Caused by a spirochete that enters the skin through a tick bite

d.

Common in geographic areas where the soil contains the mycotic spores that cause the disease

ANS: C

Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete spread by ticks. The early characteristic rash is erythema migrans. Tick bites should be avoided by entering tick-infested areas with caution. Light-colored clothing should be worn to identify ticks easily. Long-sleeve shirts and long pants tucked into socks should be the attire. Early treatment of erythema migrans (stage 1) can prevent the development of Lyme disease. Lyme disease is caused by a spirochete, not mycotic spores.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 236

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

21. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about standard precautions. Which statement made by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

a.

I will use precautions when I give an infant oral care.

b.

I will use precautions when I change an infants diaper.

c.

I will use precautions when I come in contact with blood and body fluids.

d.

I will use precautions when administering oral medications to a school-age child.

ANS: D

Standard precautions involve the use of barrier protection (personal protective equipment [PPE]), such as gloves, goggles, a gown, or a mask, to prevent contamination from (1) blood; (2) all body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, regardless of whether they contain visible blood; (3) nonintact skin; and (4) mucous membranes. Precautions should be taken when giving oral care, when changing diapers, and when coming in contact with blood and body fluids. Further teaching is needed if the student indicates the need to use precautions when administering an oral medication to a school-age child.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 193

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

22. The nurse is preparing an airborne infection isolation room for a patient. Which communicable disease does the patient likely have?

a.

Varicella

b.

Pertussis

c.

Influenza

d.

Scarlet fever

ANS: A

An airborne infection isolation room is the isolation for persons with a suspected or confirmed airborne infectious disease transmitted by the airborne route such as measles, varicella, or tuberculosis. Pertussis, influenza, and scarlet fever require droplet transmission precautions.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 194

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment

23. An infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is being admitted to the hospital. The nurse should plan to place the infant on which precaution?

a.

Enteric

b.

Airborne

c.

Droplet

d.

Contact

ANS: D

A patient with RSV is placed on contact precautions. The transmission of RSV is by contact of secretions, not by droplets or airborne. Enteric precautions are not required for RSV.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 194 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment

24. The nurse is administering the first hepatitis A vaccine to an 18-month-old child. When should the child return to the clinic for the second dose of hepatitis A vaccination?

a.

After 2 months

b.

After 3 months

c.

After 4 months

d.

After 6 months

ANS: D

Hepatitis A vaccine is now recommended for all children beginning at age 1 year (i.e., 12 months to 23 months). The second dose in the two-dose series may be administered no sooner than 6 months after the first dose.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 201

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

25. The nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella (MMRV) vaccine. Which is a contraindication associated with administering this vaccine?

a.

The child has recently been exposed to an infectious disease.

b.

The child has symptoms of a cold but no fever.

c.

The child is having intermittent episodes of diarrhea.

d.

The child has a disorder that causes a deficient immune system.

ANS: D

The MMRV (measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella) vaccine is an attenuated live virus vaccine. Children with deficient immune systems should not receive the MMRV vaccine because of a lack of evidence of its safety in this population. Exposure to an infectious disease, symptoms of a cold, or intermittent episodes of diarrhea are not contraindications to receiving a live vaccine.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 203 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation

MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment

26. An immunocompromised child has been exposed to chickenpox. What should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to the exposed child?

a.

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

b.

Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

c.

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

d.

Varicella-zoster immune globulin

ANS: D

The use of varicella-zoster immune globulin or immune globulin intravenous (IGIV) is recommended for children who are immunocompromised, who have no previous history of varicella, and who are likely to contract the disease and have complications as a result. The antiviral agent acyclovir (Zovirax) or valacyclovir may be used to treat varicella infections in susceptible immunocompromised persons. It is effective in decreasing the number of lesions; shortening the duration of fever; and decreasing itching, lethargy, and anorexia. Symmetrel is an antiviral used to treat influenza.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 212 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment

27. The clinic nurse is instructing parents about caring for a toddler with ascariasis (common roundworm). Which statement made by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?

a.

We will wash our hands often, especially after diaper changes.

b.

We know that roundworm can be transmitted from person to person.

c.

We will be sure to continue the nitazoxanide (Alinia) orally for 3 days.

d.

We will bring a stool sample to the clinic for examination in 2 weeks.

ANS: B

Ascariasis (common roundworm) is transferred to the mouth by way of contaminated food, fingers, or toys. Further teaching is needed if parents state it is transmitted from person to person. Frequent handwashing, especially after diaper changes, continuing the Alinia for 3 days, and reexamining the stool in 2 weeks are appropriate actions.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 224

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

28. The nurse is assessing a child suspected of having pinworms. Which is the most common symptom the nurse expects to assess?

a.

Restlessness

b.

Distractibility

c.

Rectal discharge

d.

Intense perianal itching

ANS: D

Intense perianal itching is the principal symptom of pinworms. Restlessness and distractibility may be nonspecific symptoms. Rectal discharge is not a symptom of pinworms.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 226

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

29. A child has been diagnosed with giardiasis. Which prescribed medication should the nurse expect to administer?

a.

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

b.

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

c.

Erythromycin (Pediazole)

d.

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

ANS: B

Metronidazole is an antibiotic effective against anaerobic bacteria and certain parasites. It is prescribed to treat giardiasis. Zithromax is an antibiotic frequently used to treat respiratory infections. Zovirax is an antiviral medication and Pediazole is an antibiotic used to treat respiratory and skin infections.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 223

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

30. A child has been diagnosed with scabies. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the nurses teaching about scabies?

a.

The itching will stop after the cream is applied.

b.

We will complete extensive aggressive housecleaning.

c.

We will apply the cream to only the affected areas as directed.

d.

Everyone who has been in close contact with my child will need to be treated.

ANS: D

Because of the length of time between infestation and physical symptoms (30 to 60 days), all persons who were in close contact with the affected child need treatment. Families need to know that although the mite will be killed, the rash and the itch will not be eliminated until the stratum corneum is replaced, which takes approximately 2 to 3 weeks. Aggressive housecleaning is not necessary, but surface vacuuming of heavily used rooms by a person with crusted scabies is recommended. The prescribed cream should be thoroughly and gently massaged into all skin surfaces (not just the areas that have a rash) from the head to the soles of the feet.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 232

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

31. An 18-month-old child has been diagnosed with pediculosis capitis (head lice). Which prescription should the nurse question if ordered for the child?

a.

Malathion (Ovide)

b.

Permethrin 1% (Nix)

c.

Benzyl alcohol 5% lotion

d.

Pyrethrin with piperonyl butoxide (RID)

ANS: A

The nurse should question malathion for an 18-month-old child. Malathion contains flammable alcohol, must remain in contact with the scalp for 8 to 12 hours, and is not recommended for children younger than 2 years of age. The drug of choice for infants and children is permethrin 1% cream rinse (Nix) or pyrethrin with piperonyl butoxide, which kill adult lice and nits. Benzyl alcohol 5% lotion has been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of head lice in children as young as 6 months.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 234

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment

32. A child has been diagnosed with cat scratch disease. The nurse explains which characteristics about this disease?

a.

The disease is usually a benign, self-limiting illness.

b.

The animal that transmitted the disease will also be ill.

c.

The disease is treated with a 5-day course of oral azithromycin.

d.

Symptoms include pruritus, especially at the site of inoculation.

ANS: A

The disease is usually a benign, self-limiting illness that resolves spontaneously in 4 to 6 weeks. The animals are not ill during the time they transmit the disease. Treatment is primarily supportive. Antibiotics do not shorten the duration or prevent progression to suppuration. The usual manifestation is a painless, nonpruritic erythematous papule at the site of inoculation.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 239

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. The nurse is planning care for a child with chickenpox (varicella). Which prescribed supportive measures should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Administration of acyclovir (Zovirax)

b.

Administration of azithromycin (Zithromax)

c.

Administration of Vitamin A supplementation

d.

Administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for fever

e.

Administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for itching

ANS: A, D, E

Chickenpox is a virus, and acyclovir is ordered to lessen the symptoms. Benadryl and Tylenol are prescribed as supportive treatments. Vitamin A supplementation is used for treating rubeola. Zithromax is an antibiotic prescribed for bacterial infections such as pertussis.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 229 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

2. The nurse is planning care for an infant with candidiasis (moniliasis) diaper dermatitis. Which topical ointments may be prescribed for the patient? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Nystatin

b.

Bactroban

c.

Neosporin

d.

Miconazole

e.

Clotrimazole

ANS: A, D, E

Candidiasis diaper dermatitis skin lesions are treated with topical nystatin, miconazole, and clotrimazole. Bactroban and Neosporin are used to treat bacterial dermatitides.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 231 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

3. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching to an adolescent with a methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. What should the nurse include in the instructions? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Avoid sharing of towels and washcloths.

b.

Launder clothes and bedding in cold water.

c.

Use bleach when laundering towels and washcloths.

d.

Take a daily bath or shower with an antibacterial soap.

e.

Apply mupirocin (Bactroban) to the nares twice a day for 2 to 4 weeks.

ANS: A, D, E

For MRSA infection, the adolescent should be provided with washcloths and towels separate from those of other family members. Daily bathing or showering with an antibacterial soap is also recommended. Mupirocin should be applied to the nares of those with MRSA infection twice daily for 2 to 4 weeks. Clothing should be laundered in warm to hot water, not cold, and bleach does not need to be used when laundering towels and washcloths.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 226

TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

4. The clinic nurse is reviewing the immunization guidelines for hepatitis B. Which are true of the guidelines for this vaccine? (Select all that apply.)

a.

The hepatitis B vaccination series should be begun at birth.

b.

The adolescent not vaccinated at birth does not have a need to be vaccinated.

c.

Any child not vaccinated at birth should receive two doses at least 4 months apart.

d.

An unimmunized 10-year-old child should receive three doses administered 4 weeks apart.

ANS: A, D

Current immunization guidelines for hepatitis B vaccination recommend beginning the hepatitis B vaccine series at birth or, in unimmunized children, as soon as possible. Children younger than 11 years of age may be vaccinated with a three-dose series, administered 4 weeks apart. Children 11 years and older may receive the two-dose adult formulation given at least 4 months apart.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 196 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation

MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

5. The nurse is planning to administer immunizations to a 6-month-old infant. Which interventions should the nurse implement to minimize local reactions from the vaccines? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Select a needle length of 1 inch.

b.

Administer in the deltoid muscle.

c.

Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis.

d.

Draw the vaccine up from a vial with a filter needle.

e.

Change the needle on the syringe after drawing up the vaccine and before injecting.

ANS: A, C

To minimize local reactions from vaccines, the nurse should select a needle of adequate length (25 mm [1 inch] in infants) to deposit the antigen deep in the muscle mass and inject it into the vastus lateralis muscle. The deltoid may be used in children 18 months of age or older but not in a 6-month-old infant. A filter needle is not needed to draw the vaccine from a vial. Changing the needle on the syringe after drawing up the vaccine before injecting it has not been shown to decrease local reactions.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyzing REF: p. 207 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation

MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

6. The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old child who developed lesions of varicella (chickenpox) 3 days ago. Which clinical manifestations of varicella should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Nonpruritic rash

b.

Elevated temperature

c.

Discrete rose pink rash

d.

Vesicles surrounded by an erythematous base

e.

Centripetal rash in all three stages (papule, vesicle, and crust)

ANS: B, D, E

The clinical manifestations of varicella include elevated temperature, vesicles surrounded by an erythematous base, and a centripetal rash in all three stages (papule, vesicle, and crust). The rash is pruritic, and a discrete pink rash is seen with exanthema subitum, not varicella.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 212

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

7. The nurse is preparing to admit a 1-year-old child with pertussis (whooping cough). Which clinical manifestations of pertussis should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Earache

b.

Coryza

c.

Conjunctivitis

d.

Low-grade fever

e.

Dry hacking cough

ANS: B, D, E

The clinical manifestations of pertussis include coryza, a low-grade fever, and a dry hacking cough. The child does not have an earache or conjunctivitis.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 214

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

8. The nurse is preparing to admit a 2-year-old child with rubella (German measles). Which clinical manifestations of rubella should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Sore throat

b.

Conjunctivitis

c.

Koplik spots

d.

Lymphadenopathy

e.

Discrete, pinkish red maculopapular exanthema

ANS: A, B, D, E

The clinical manifestations of rubella include a sore throat; conjunctivitis; lymphadenopathy; and a discrete, pinkish red maculopapular exanthema. Koplik spots occur in measles but not rubella.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 217

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

9. The clinic nurse is assessing a child with bacterial conjunctivitis (pink eye). Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Itching

b.

Swollen eyelids

c.

Inflamed conjunctiva

d.

Purulent eye drainage

e.

Crusting of eyelids in the morning

ANS: B, C, D, E

The assessment findings in bacterial conjunctivitis include swollen eyelids, inflamed conjunctiva, purulent eye drainage, and crusting of eyelids in the morning. Itching is seen with allergic conjunctivitis but not with bacterial conjunctivitis.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 221

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

10. The clinic nurse is assessing a child with a heavy ascariasis lumbricoides (common roundworm) infection. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Anemia

b.

Anorexia

c.

Irritability

d.

Intestinal colic

e.

Enlarged abdomen

ANS: B, C, D, E

The assessment findings in a heavy ascariasis lumbricoides infection include anorexia, irritability, intestinal colic, and an enlarged abdomen. Anemia is seen in hookworm infections but not ascariasis.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 224

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

MATCHING

Match the key immunization terms to their meanings.

a.

Natural immunity

b.

Acquired immunity

c.

Active immunity

d.

Passive immunity

e.

Herd immunity

1. A state in which immune bodies are actively formed against specific antigens, either naturally by having had the disease or artificially

2. A majority of the population is vaccinated, and the spread of certain diseases is stopped

3. Innate immunity or resistance to infection or toxicity

4. Immunity from exposure to the invading agent, which is a bacteria, virus, or toxin

5. Temporary immunity from the mother to the fetus via the placenta

1. ANS: C DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 196

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

2. ANS: E DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 196

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

3. ANS: A DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 196

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

4. ANS: B DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 196

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

5. ANS: D DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 196

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

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